by Mitera Nikkou » Thu Dec 27, 2007 11:14 pm
But sound and noise are synonymous, so you have to be more specific in their usage. Otherwise it doesn't make any sense because there's a lack of differentiation. Such as referring to noise as being synonymous with racket rather than sound in general. Either way there's a few ways of tackling the answer to the question, that I'm able to think of off the top of my head.
1: Being that sound is a vibration that transmits through mass in waves, one could scientifically calculate that there would have been a sound if someone had been there to observe it with their senses.
2: Because we perceive the world through our mind, and thus we experience things in relation to how it translates the information we receive, one could argue that just imagining a tree falling in a forest, along with the accompanying sound, means that, in reality, we heard the sound.
3: Then, of course, the reason there's a question about this at all: how the ideas of time and space dictate what we know. Which is to say that, if you weren't there, and at that time, then you didn't hear it. Instead you were hearing other things at the time and place you were at.
4: And then there's mine, where you can tell because of its bark. I find that one the best answer, of course. Not that there is a best answer, mind you, but you know what I mean. ;p
Hell hath no fury like a woman scorned because only women can give two tits for every tat.
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