by Mitera Nikkou » Thu Aug 21, 2008 4:29 pm
If you paid attention, you'd know that I've been trying to apply modern and ancient theology in their appropriate timelines. Ancient belief in ancient times, and modern in modern times. Sure, I'm not good with history, but I know better than to apply modern beliefs/facts to ancient ones. And so far no one has made a valid argument for "Jews" (as a religion) being a valid term before the arrival of Judaism, which didn't take place until hundreds of years after Jesus lived. And until someone does, "Jew" refers to someone from Judea, and Jesus was a Galilean.
Anyway, "you have said it," isn't an affirmation from Jesus. To me, that sounds more like, "if you say so." A perceptional thing. Of course, the gospels have different accounts of that event. Most of them say, "you have said it," or something to that effect. Whereas John illustrates a more interesting answer, having to do with another kingdom altogether, not one of this Earth and, certainly, not of the Jews. He's the Son of God, of course, so what do you expect? Beyond that, with differing accounts about other details, and the fact that the charges brought forth (including Jesus taking over as king of the Jews) were false (since Pilate didn't believe the charges and thus found no fault in Jesus), you'd have to verify Jesus' status as a Jew from elsewhere, if he has indeed called himself one/admitted to being one at any other time.
Finally, consider Jesus' baptism by John the baptist. Seriously. Even though there are differing accounts about that event, too.
Hell hath no fury like a woman scorned because only women can give two tits for every tat.
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